Communicable Disease Answers

1. D. In mothers with genital herpes, the fetus can be contaminated after membranes rupture or with vaginal delivery. Therefore, for women with active lesions, either recurrent or primary at the time of labor, delivery should be by cesarean to prevent the fetus from coming into contact with the genital herpes.

A. The safety of acyclovir had not been established during pregnancy and should only be used when life-threatening infection is present.

C. Abstinence should be advised while the lesions are present, until they become culture- negative.

D. This promotes healing.

2. A. Syphilis may cross the placenta, causing congenital syphilis. It usually leads to spontaneous abortion, and it increases the incidence of mental subnormality and physical deformities in fetus.

B. In gonorrhea, the fetus is contaminated at the time of delivery. It places the neonate at risk for ophthalmia neonatorum, pneumonia and sepsis, but these can be avoided via cesarean delivery.

C. In genital herpes, fetus is contaminated after membranes rupture or with vaginal delivery. Mother should deliver via cesarean section.

3. A. Patients with AIDS are immunocompromised. Reverse isolation is required. But this does no prevent the spread of AIDS.

B, C and D are universal preventive measures for AIDS.

4. D

5. D. This does not prevent transmission of gonorrhea. It prevents the occurrence of ophthalmia neonatorum.

6. D. Koplik spots are associated with rubeola.

A. Pastia's sign describes a rash that is seen in scarlet fever that will blanch with pressure except in areas of deep creases and folds of the joints.

B The tongue is initially coated with a white furry covering with red projecting papillae (white strawberry tongue).

C. The pharynx is edematous and beefy red in color.

7. A. Mumps is transmitted via direct contact or droplet spread from an infected person and possibly by contact with the urine. Respiratory precautions are indicated during the period of communicability.

8. C. Occasionally, tenderness, redness, or swelling may occur at the site of the injection. This can be relieved with ice packs for the first 24 hours followed by warm compresses if the inflammation persists.

9. C. Genital herpes is characterized by painful vesicles affecting the external genitalia, vagina and cervix.

10. B. The presence of a grayish membrane on the hard palate, or pseudomembrane is a pathognomonic sign of diphtheria. Whitish plaque at buccal mucosa, or koplik spots, are seen in a rubeola infection (measles).

11. C. The male and female parasites live in blood vessels of intestines and liver, but the eggs are laid in the terminal capillary vessels in the submucosa of the intestines, and through the ulcerations reach the lumen of the intestines and pass out with the feces.

12. B. Infection occurs when skin comes in contact with contaminated fresh water where cercariae (free swimming larval forms of schistosomes) are living.

13. A. Praziquantel (Biltricide) is the drug of choice for Schistosomiasis.

B. Hetrazan is the drug of choice for Filiariasis

C. Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice for Typhoid fever

D. Tetracycline is the drug of choice for Cholera

14. D. This is a preventive measure for vector-borne diseases. Schistosomiasis is a water-borne disease.

A. Drinking water should be free of cercariae.

B. Schistosomiasis can be transmitted through exposure to contaminated water.

C. The use of sanitary toilets prevents viable eggs from reaching bodies of water containing intermediate snail host.

15. C. Meningitis is not a complication of Bilhariasis.

16. B. Malarial parasites invade and destroy red blood cells.

17. B. As sporozoites from the salivary gland of a female Anopheles mosquito are injected under the skin, they travel into the bloodstream to the liver and mature within hepatocytes. Up to 30,000 parasites are then released into the bloodstream as merozoites and produce a symptomatic infection as they invade and destroy red blood cells.

18. C.

B. This is the vector for Filariasis.

D. This is the vector for Dengue.

19. B.

A. Sulfadoxine (Sulfalene) 50 mg

C. Tetracycline hydrochloride 250mg/capsule

D. Quinidine sulfate 300 mg table;

Quinidine hydrochloride 300 mg/mL, 2 ML ampule

20. B. A and b are not included. The vector's peak biting hours are 9pm to 3am. Chloroquine is taken at weekly intervals.

21. B. Women who fall into the high-risk category for HIV infection include those with persistent and recurrent sexually transmitted diseases or a history of multiple sexual partners, and those who use or have used IV drugs.

A, C and D do not contribute to the incidence of contracting HIV.

22. B. This is true of HIV.

A. Perspiration does not contain the virus.

C. This is not always true for HIV. Clients may be infected with the virus, but has not yet produced antibodies, thereby testing negative, but being capable of infecting others. It usually takes 6 to 12 weeks (other books: 1 to 3 months) for a host to manufacture detectable HIV antibodies.

D. Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV.

23. B. Presence of hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAG) in the blood after 6 months indicates a carrier state or chronic hepatitis.

A, C and D are true.Hepatitis B early antigen is detected in the blood about 1 week after the appearance of HBsAG. Its presence determines the infective state of the clien

24. A

25. B. 80% of gonoccocal infection particularly in females have no symptoms.

26. B

27. D. Avian flu is not associated with vomiting and diarrhea.

28. B

A and D. Vomiting and diarrhea are not associated with bird flu.

C. Diarrhea, bloody stool, and hematemesis not associated with bird flu.

29. B. One control measure for Avian flu is the rapid destruction (culling or stamping out) of all infected or exposed birds. Other control measures include proper disposal of carcasses; quarantining; rigorous disinfection of farms; and restriction on the movement of live poultry.

30. B. The incubation period ranges 2-4 days.