1. The Membrane that helps form the placenta is the:
a. amnion c. chorion
b. yolk sac d. allantois
2. Progesterone is secreted in relatively large quantities by the:a. corpus luteum c. endometrium
b. adrenal cortex d. pituitary gland
3. The developing cells are called a fetus from the:a. end of the 2nd week to the onset of labor
b. implantation of the fertilized ovum
c. time the fetal heart is heard
d. 8th week to the time of birth
4. The ischial spine are designated as an important landmark in labor and delivery because the distance between the spines is:a. a measurement of the floor of the pelvis
b. a measurement of the inlet of the birth canal
c. the widest measurement of the pelvis
d. the narrowest diameter of the pelvis
5. True labor can be differentiated from false labor in that in true labor, contractions will:a. occur immediately after membrane rupture
b. bring about progressive cervical dilation
c. be less uncomfortable if client is in side-lying position
d. stop when the client is encouraged to walk around
6. During pregnancy, the volume of tidal air increases because there is:a. increased expansion of the lower ribs
b. a relative increase in the height of the rib cage
c. upward displacement of the diaphragm
d. an increase in total blood volume
7. The uterus rises out of the pelvis and becomes an abdominal organ at about the:a. 8th wk. of pregnancy
b. 18th wk. of pregnancy
c. 10th wk. of pregnancy
d. 12th wk. of pregnancy
8. Most spontaneous abortion is caused by:a. physical trauma c. unresolved stress
b. germ plasma defects d. congenital defects
9. The membrane that provides the fluid medium for the embryo is the:a. amnion c. chorion
b. yolk sac d. funis
10. First fetal movements felt by the mother are known as:a. ballotment c. lightening
b. engagement d. quickening
11. In prenatal development, growth is most rapid in the:a. implantation period c. 2nd trimester
b. 1st trimester d. 3rd trimester
12. The chief function of the progesterone is the:a. establishment of secondary male sex characteristics
b. stimulation of follicles for ovulation to occur
c. development of female reproductive organ
d. preparation of the uterus to receive fertilized ovum
13. Research indicates:a. Ambivalence and anxiety about mothering are common.
b. a rejected pregnancy will result in rejected infant
c. a good mother experiences neither ambivalence nor anxiety about mothering
14. The presence of multiple gestation should be detected as early as possible and the pregnancy managed with high risk in mind because:a. perinatal mortality is 2 to 3 times greater than in single birth
b. maternal mortality is much higher during prenatal period of multiple gestation
c. the mother needs time to adjust psychologically and physiologically after delivery
d. post partum hemorrhage is an expected complication
15. During the process of gametogenesis, the male and female sex cells divide and then contain:a. a diploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei
b. a haploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei
c. 22 pairs of autosomes in their nuclei
d. 46 pairs of chromosomes in their nuclei
16. The placenta does not produce:a. chorionic gonadotropin
b. FSH
c. progesterone precursor substances
d. somatotropin
17. After the 1st 3 months of pregnancy, the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is the:a. anterior hypophysis c. adrenal cortex
b. placenta d. corpus luteum
18. In fetal blood vessels, the O2 content is highest in:a. umbilical artery c. ductus venosus
b. ductus arteriosus d. pulmonary artery
19. Physiologic anemia during pregnancy is a result of:a. increased blood volume of the mother
b. decreased dietary intake of iron
c. decreased erythropoiesis after 1st trimester
d. increased detoxification demands on the mother’s liver
20. Fetus is most likely to be damaged by the pregnant woman’s ingestion of drugs during the:a. 1st trimester c. 3rd trimester
b. 2nd trimester d. entire pregnancy
21. The most common type of ectopic pregnancy is tubal. Within a few weeks after conception the tube may rupture suddenly, causing:a. sudden knife-like, lower-quadrant abdominal pain
b. continuous dull, lower quadrant abdominal pain
c. painless vaginal bleeding
d. intermittent abdominal contractions
22. In caring for a client with a tentative diagnosis of H-mole, the nurse should be alert for:a. painless heavy vaginal bleeding
b. unusually rapid uterine enlargement
c. hypotension
d. decreased FHR
23. Breast feeding is always contraindicated with:a. pregnancy c. inverted nipples
b. herpes genitalis d. mastitis
24. Post partal hemorrhage is usually not associated with:a. delivery of twins or hydramnios
b. retained placenta
c. toxemia of pregnancy
d. overdistended bladder
25. The earliest clinical sign in idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn is usually:a. sternal and subcostal retractions
b. cyanosis
c. rapid respiration
d. grunting
26. Abruptio placenta is most likely to occur in a woman with:a. toxemia c. hyperthyroidism
b. cardiac disease d. CPD
27. A predisposing factor in determining whether a woman will have a postpartum hemorrhage is the knowledge that:a. Her uterus is over distended
b. she has had more than 5 pregnancies
c. the duration of her labor is very short
d. she is over 40 yrs of age.
a. intracranial hemorrhage
b. cephalhematoma
c. compression of cord
d. separation of placenta prior to delivery of head
29. The care of the client with placenta previa includes:a. limited ambulation until the bleeding stops
b. observation and recording of the bleeding
c. vital signs at least once per shift
d. a tap water enema before delivery
30. The nurse would suspect an ectopic pregnancy if the client complained of:a. lower abdominal cramping present over a long period of time
b. sharp lower right or left abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder
c. leucorrhea and dysuria a few days after the first missed period
d. an adherent painful ovarian mass
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