TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child

TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of
the Mother and Child

1. May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the
nurse that her last menstrual period was 9
weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that a home
pregnancy test was positive but she began to
have mild cramps and is now having moderate
vaginal bleeding. During the physical
examination of the client, the nurse notes that
May has a dilated cervix. The nurse determines
that May is experiencing which type of abortion?
a. Inevitable
b. Incomplete
c. Threatened
d. Septic

2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a
pregnant client for her first prenatal visit. Which
of the following data, if noted on the client’s
record, would alert the nurse that the client is at
risk for a spontaneous abortion?
a. Age 36 years
b. History of syphilis
c. History of genital herpes
d. History of diabetes mellitus

3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client who
is newly admitted to the hospital with a possible
diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nurse Hazel
develops a plan of care for the client and
determines that which of the following nursing
actions is the priority?
a. Monitoring weight
b. Assessing for edema
c. Monitoring apical pulse
d. Monitoring temperature

4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic pregnant
client about nutrition and insulin needs during
pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client
understands dietary and insulin needs if the
client states that the second half of pregnancy
requires:
a. Decreased caloric intake
b. Increased caloric intake
c. Decreased Insulin
d. Increase Insulin

5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client
with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. She is
aware that one of the following is unassociated
with this condition?
a. Excessive fetal activity.
b. Larger than normal uterus for
gestational age.
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Elevated levels of human chorionic
gonadotropin.

6. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate
for severe pregnancy induced hypertension
(PIH). The clinical findings that would warrant
use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:
a. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
b. Absent patellar reflexes.
c. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.
d. Rapid rise in blood pressure.

7. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in
labor, the presenting part is at station plus two.
Nurse, correctly interprets it as:
a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane
of the ischial spines.
b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the
ischial spines.
c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane
of the ischial spines.
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the
ischial spines.

8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin)
for induction of labor. A condition that warrant
the nurse in-charge to discontinue I.V. infusion
of Pitocin is:
a. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting
70-80 seconds.
b. Maternal temperature 101.2
c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart
rate.
d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.

9. Calcium gluconate is being administered to a
client with pregnancy induced hypertension
(PIH). A nursing action that must be initiated as
the plan of care throughout injection of the drug
is:
a. Ventilator assistance
b. CVP readings
c. EKG tracings
d. Continuous CPR

10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier
caesarean, would likely to be given to a gravida,
who had:
a. First low transverse cesarean was for
active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal
culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was
positive.
b. First and second caesareans were for
cephalopelvic disproportion.
c. First caesarean through a classic incision
as a result of severe fetal distress.
d. First low transverse caesarean was for
breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy
is in a vertex presentation.

11. Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial
approach when trying to take a crying toddler’s
temperature is:
a. Talk to the mother first and then to the
toddler.
b. Bring extra help so it can be done
quickly.
c. Encourage the mother to hold the child.
d. Ignore the crying and screaming.

12. Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip
and palate repair. What should the nurse do to
prevent trauma to operative site?
a. Avoid touching the suture line, even
when cleaning.
b. Place the baby in prone position.
c. Give the baby a pacifier.
d. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow
restraints.

13. Which action should nurse Marian include in the
care plan for a 2 month old with heart failure?
a. Feed the infant when he cries.
b. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
c. Bathe the infant and administer
medications before feeding.
d. Weigh and bathe the infant before
feeding.

14. Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who plans to
discontinue breast feeding after 5 months. The
nurse should advise her to include which foods
in her infant’s diet?
a. Skim milk and baby food.
b. Whole milk and baby food.
c. Iron-rich formula only.
d. Iron-rich formula and baby food.

15. Mommy Linda is playing with her infant, who is
sitting securely alone on the floor of the clinic.
The mother hides a toy behind her back and the
infant looks for it. The nurse is aware that
estimated age of the infant would be:
a. 6 months
b. 4 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months

16. Which of the following is the most prominent
feature of public health nursing?
a. It involves providing home care to sick
people who are not confined in the
hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to
people within the catchments area.
c. The public health nurse functions as part
of a team providing a public health
nursing services.
d. Public health nursing focuses on
preventive, not curative, services.

17. When the nurse determines whether resources
were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas,
she is evaluating
a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Adequacy
d. Appropriateness

18. Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She wants to
become a Public Health Nurse. Where should
she apply?
a. Department of Health
b. Provincial Health Office
c. Regional Health Office
d. Rural Health Unit

19. Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal
Health Board is:
a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician

20. Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality
with a total population of about 20,000. There
are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU
personnel. How many more midwife items will
the RHU need?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. The RHU does not need any more
midwife item.

21. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community
health nursing is a developmental service. Which
of the following best illustrates this statement?
a. The community health nurse
continuously develops himself
personally and professionally.
b. Health education and community
organizing are necessary in providing
community health services.
c. Community health nursing is intended
primarily for health promotion and
prevention and treatment of disease.
d. The goal of community health nursing is
to provide nursing services to people in
their own places of residence.

22. Nurse Tina is aware that the disease declared
through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a
target for eradication in the Philippines is?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Rabies
d. Neonatal tetanus

23. May knows that the step in community
organizing that involves training of potential
leaders in the community is:
a. Integration
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Core group formation

24. Beth a public health nurse takes an active role in
community participation. What is the primary
goal of community organizing?
a. To educate the people regarding
community health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve
community health problems
c. To maximize the community’s resources
in dealing with health problems.
d. To maximize the community’s resources
in dealing with health problems.

25. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of
the natural history of disease?
a. Pre-pathogenesis
b. Pathogenesis
c. Prodromal
d. Terminal

26. The nurse is caring for a primigravid client in the
labor and delivery area. Which condition would
place the client at risk for disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
a. Intrauterine fetal death.
b. Placenta accreta.
c. Dysfunctional labor.
d. Premature rupture of the membranes.

27. A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware
that the fetal heart rate would be:
a. 80 to 100 beats/minute
b. 100 to 120 beats/minute
c. 120 to 160 beats/minute
d. 160 to 180 beats/minute

28. The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month old
infant is excoriated and red. Nurse Hazel should
instruct the mother to:
a. Change the diaper more often.
b. Apply talc powder with diaper changes.
c. Wash the area vigorously with each
diaper change.
d. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to
decrease saturating diapers.

29. Nurse Carla knows that the common cardiac
anomalies in children with Down Syndrome (trisomy
21) is:
a. Atrial septal defect
b. Pulmonic stenosis
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Endocardial cushion defect

30. Malou was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia
is now receiving I.V. magnesium sulfate. The
adverse effects associated with magnesium
sulfate is:
a. Anemia
b. Decreased urine output
c. Hyperreflexia
d. Increased respiratory rate

31. A 23 year old client is having her menstrual
period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This
type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:
a. Menorrhagia
b. Metrorrhagia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Amenorrhea

32. Jannah is admitted to the labor and delivery
unit. The critical laboratory result for this client
would be:
a. Oxygen saturation
b. Iron binding capacity
c. Blood typing
d. Serum Calcium

33. Nurse Gina is aware that the most common
condition found during the second-trimester of
pregnancy is:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Mastitis
d. Physiologic anemia

34. Nurse Lynette is working in the triage area of an
emergency department. She sees that several
pediatric clients arrive simultaneously. The client
who needs to be treated first is:
a. A crying 5 year old child with a
laceration on his scalp.
b. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs
and flushed appearance.
c. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome
who is pale and asleep in his mother’s
arms.
d. A 2 year old infant with stridorous
breath sounds, sitting up in his mother’s
arms and drooling.

35. Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the
emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following conditions is suspected?
a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease

36. A young child named Richard is suspected of
having pinworms. The community nurse collects
a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The
nurse should schedule the collection of this
specimen for:
a. Just before bedtime
b. After the child has been bathe
c. Any time during the day
d. Early in the morning

37. In doing a child’s admission assessment, Nurse
Betty should be alert to note which signs or
symptoms of chronic lead poisoning?
a. Irritability and seizures
b. Dehydration and diarrhea
c. Bradycardia and hypotension
d. Petechiae and hematuria

38. To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the
use of diaphragm for family planning, Nurse
Trish asks her to explain how she will use the
appliance. Which response indicates a need for
further health teaching?
a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully
for holes every time I use it”
b. “I may need a different size of
diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more
than 20 pounds”
c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for
atleast 6 hours after intercourse”
d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and
jelly most during the middle of my
menstrual cycle”.

39. Hypoxia is a common complication of
laryngotracheobronchitis. Nurse Oliver should
frequently assess a child with
laryngotracheobronchitis for:
a. Drooling
b. Muffled voice
c. Restlessness
d. Low-grade fever

40. How should Nurse Michelle guide a child who is
blind to walk to the playroom?
a. Without touching the child, talk
continuously as the child walks down the
hall.
b. Walk one step ahead, with the child’s
hand on the nurse’s elbow.
c. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the
child forward.
d. Walk next to the child, holding the
child’s hand.

41. When assessing a newborn diagnosed with
ductus arteriosus, Nurse Olivia should expect
that the child most likely would have an:
a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper
extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper
extremities.

42. The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a
neutral thermal environment is that when a
newborn becomes too cool, the neonate
requires:
a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s
metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s
metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s
metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s
metabolic rate decreases.

43. Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line,
Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this
infant has:
a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided

44. Nurse Carla should know that the most common
causative factor of dermatitis in infants and
younger children is:
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch

45. During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s
stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with
formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches

46. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed
childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which
of the following statements about chicken pox is
correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible
he becomes to the complications of
chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will
prevent future episodes, including
conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the
community, quarantine may be imposed
by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when
there is an impending outbreak in the
community.

47. Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of German
measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is
the BEST advice that you can give to women in
the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay
Pinoy?
a. Advise them on the signs of German
measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets
and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where
rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them
rubella immunoglobulin.

48. Myrna a public health nurse knows that to
determine possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, the BEST method that
may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects

49. A 33-year old female client came for
consultation at the health center with the chief
complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying
symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise.
A week after the start of fever, the client noted
yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History
showed that he waded in flood waters about 2
weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on
her history, which disease condition will you
suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis

50. Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the
health center with the chief complaint of severe
diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools.
The client is most probably suffering from which
condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery

51. The most prevalent form of meningitis among
children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by
which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis

52. The student nurse is aware that the
pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot
and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck

53. Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever.
You will say that there is slow capillary refill
when the color of the nailbed that you pressed
does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds

54. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness,
the nurse is aware that the severe conditions
generally require urgent referral to a hospital.
Which of the following severe conditions DOES
NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease

55. Myrna a public health nurse will conduct
outreach immunization in a barangay Masay
with a population of about 1500. The estimated
number of infants in the barangay would be:
a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants

56. The community nurse is aware that the
biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the
freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR

57. It is the most effective way of controlling
schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as
rubber boots

58. Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed
with leprosy. Which of the following clients
should be classified as a case of multibacillary
leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

59. Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is
highly dependent on recognition of symptoms.
Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?
a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge

60. Marie brought her 10 month old infant for
consultation because of fever, started 4 days
prior to consultation. In determining malaria
risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present every day.

61. Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the
RHU because of cough and colds. Following the
IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is
a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent
referral to a hospital?
a. Inability to drink
b. High grade fever
c. Signs of severe dehydration
d. Cough for more than 30 days

62. Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”.
As a nurse, using the IMCI guidelines, how will
you manage Jimmy?
a. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for
confinement.
b. Coordinate with the social worker to
enroll the child in a feeding program.
c. Make a teaching plan for the mother,
focusing on menu planning for her child.
d. Assess and treat the child for health
problems like infections and intestinal
parasitism.

63. Gina is using Oresol in the management of
diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you
what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will
tell her to:
a. Bring the child to the nearest hospital
for further assessment.
b. Bring the child to the health center for
intravenous fluid therapy.
c. Bring the child to the health center for
assessment by the physician.
d. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then
continue giving Oresol more slowly.

64. Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by his
mother to the health center because of diarrhea
for 4 to 5 times a day. Her skin goes back slowly
after a skin pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using
the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in
which category?
a. No signs of dehydration
b. Some dehydration
c. Severe dehydration
d. The data is insufficient.

65. Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by her
mother to the health center because of cough.
His respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the
Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI)
guidelines of assessment, his breathing is
considered as:
a. Fast
b. Slow
c. Normal
d. Insignificant

66. Maylene had just received her 4th dose of
tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby will
have protection against tetanus for
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. Lifetime

67. Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG should be
discarded after how many hours of
reconstitution?
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. At the end of the day

68. The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother
that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s
nutrient needs only up to:
a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years

69. Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational age of a
conceptus that is considered viable (able to live
outside the womb) is:
a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 32 weeks

70. When teaching parents of a neonate the proper
position for the neonate’s sleep, the nurse
Patricia stresses the importance of placing the
neonate on his back to reduce the risk of which
of the following?
a. Aspiration
b. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
c. Suffocation
d. Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)
71. Which finding might be seen in baby James a
neonate suspected of having an infection?
a. Flushed cheeks
b. Increased temperature
c. Decreased temperature
d. Increased activity level

72. Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation is at
increased risk during the transitional period for
which complication?
a. Anemia probably due to chronic fetal
hyposia
b. Hyperthermia due to decreased
glycogen stores
c. Hyperglycemia due to decreased
glycogen stores
d. Polycythemia probably due to chronic
fetal hypoxia

73. Marjorie has just given birth at 42 weeks’
gestation. When the nurse assessing the
neonate, which physical finding is expected?
a. A sleepy, lethargic baby
b. Lanugo covering the body
c. Desquamation of the epidermis
d. Vernix caseosa covering the body

74. After reviewing the Myrna’s maternal history of
magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition
would nurse Richard anticipate as a potential
problem in the neonate?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Jitteriness
c. Respiratory depression
d. Tachycardia

75. Which symptom would indicate the Baby
Alexandra was adapting appropriately to extrauterine
life without difficulty?
a. Nasal flaring
b. Light audible grunting
c. Respiratory rate 40 to 60
breaths/minute
d. Respiratory rate 60 to 80
breaths/minute

76. When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a
new mother, the nurse Jenny would include
which information?
a. Apply peroxide to the cord with each
diaper change
b. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after
bathing
c. Keep the cord dry and open to air
d. Wash the cord with soap and water each
day during a tub bath.

77. Nurse John is performing an assessment on a
neonate. Which of the following findings is
considered common in the healthy neonate?
a. Simian crease
b. Conjunctival hemorrhage
c. Cystic hygroma
d. Bulging fontanelle

78. Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture the
membranes of a mother who is on labor.
Following this procedure, the nurse Hazel checks
the fetal heart tones for which the following
reasons?
a. To determine fetal well-being.
b. To assess for prolapsed cord
c. To assess fetal position
d. To prepare for an imminent delivery.

79. Which of the following would be least likely to
indicate anticipated bonding behaviors by new
parents?
a. The parents’ willingness to touch and
hold the new born.
b. The parent’s expression of interest
about the size of the new born.
c. The parents’ indication that they want to
see the newborn.
d. The parents’ interactions with each
other.

80. Following a precipitous delivery, examination of
the client's vagina reveals a fourth-degree
laceration. Which of the following would be
contraindicated when caring for this client?
a. Applying cold to limit edema during the
first 12 to 24 hours.
b. Instructing the client to use two or more
peripads to cushion the area.
c. Instructing the client on the use of sitz
baths if ordered.
d. Instructing the client about the
importance of perineal (kegel) exercises.

81. A pregnant woman accompanied by her
husband, seeks admission to the labor and
delivery area. She states that she's in labor and
says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal
care. Which question should the nurse Oliver ask
her first?
a. “Do you have any chronic illnesses?”
b. “Do you have any allergies?”
c. “What is your expected due date?”
d. “Who will be with you during labor?”

82. A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color.
What should the nurse do first?
a. Calm the neonate.
b. Notify the physician.
c. Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered
d. Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth
with a bulb syringe.

83. When a client states that her "water broke,"
which of the following actions would be
inappropriate for the nurse to do?
a. Observing the pooling of straw-colored
fluid.
b. Checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine
paper.
c. Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an
amniotic fluid index.
d. Observing for flakes of vernix in the
vaginal discharge.

84. A baby girl is born 8 weeks premature. At birth,
she has no spontaneous respirations but is
successfully resuscitated. Within several hours
she develops respiratory grunting, cyanosis,
tachypnea, nasal flaring, and retractions. She's
diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome,
intubated, and placed on a ventilator. Which
nursing action should be included in the baby's
plan of care to prevent retinopathy of
prematurity?
a. Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen.
b. Keep her body temperature low.
c. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen
(Pao2) levels.
d. Humidify the oxygen.

85. Which of the following is normal newborn
calorie intake?
a. 110 to 130 calories per kg.
b. 30 to 40 calories per lb of body weight.
c. At least 2 ml per feeding
d. 90 to 100 calories per kg

86. Nurse John is knowledgeable that usually
individual twins will grow appropriately and at
the same rate as singletons until how many
weeks?
a. 16 to 18 weeks
b. 18 to 22 weeks
c. 30 to 32 weeks
d. 38 to 40 weeks

87. Which of the following classifications applies to
monozygotic twins for whom the cleavage of the
fertilized ovum occurs more than 13 days after
fertilization?
a. conjoined twins
b. diamniotic dichorionic twins
c. diamniotic monochorionic twin
d. monoamniotic monochorionic twins

88. Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding has
just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa.
Which of the following procedures is usually
performed to diagnose placenta previa?
a. Amniocentesis
b. Digital or speculum examination
c. External fetal monitoring
d. Ultrasound

89. Nurse Arnold knows that the following changes
in respiratory functioning during pregnancy is
considered normal:
a. Increased tidal volume
b. Increased expiratory volume
c. Decreased inspiratory capacity
d. Decreased oxygen consumption

90. Emily has gestational diabetes and it is usually
managed by which of the following therapy?
a. Diet
b. Long-acting insulin
c. Oral hypoglycemic
d. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin

91. Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma with
preeclampsia to prevent which of the following
condition?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Hypertension
c. Hypomagnesemia
d. Seizure

92. Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased
risk for having a sickle cell crisis during
pregnancy. Aggressive management of a sickle
cell crisis includes which of the following
measures?
a. Antihypertensive agents
b. Diuretic agents
c. I.V. fluids
d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain

93. Which of the following drugs is the antidote for
magnesium toxicity?
a. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
b. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
c. Naloxone (Narcan)
d. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

94. Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her
first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of
purified protein derivative (PPD) of the
tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to
have a positive test for which of the following
results?
a. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in
diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.
b. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in
diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.
c. A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in
diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.
d. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in
diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.

95. Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks’ pregnant
arrives at her physician’s office with complaints
of fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, unilateral
flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
a. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)

96. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client
develops during which of the following
conditions?
a. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into
fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.
b. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into
maternal blood, stimulating maternal
antibodies.
c. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into
maternal blood, stimulating maternal
antibodies.
d. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into
fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.

97. To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John
advises a client to assume certain positions and
avoid others. Which position may cause
maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?
a. Lateral position
b. Squatting position
c. Supine position

98. Celeste who used heroin during her pregnancydelivers a neonate. When assessing the neonate,
the nurse Lhynnette expects to find:
a. Lethargy 2 days after birth.
b. Irritability and poor sucking.
c. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin
lips.
d. Congenital defects such as limb
anomalies.

99. The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which
of the following time frames?
a. 7th to 9th day postpartum.
b. 2 weeks postpartum.
c. End of 6th week postpartum.
d. When the lochia changes to alba.

100. Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20, has
just completed a difficult, forceps-assisted
delivery of twins. Her labor was unusually
long and required oxytocin (Pitocin)
augmentation. The nurse who's caring for her
should stay alert for:
a. Uterine inversion
b. Uterine atony
c. Uterine involution
d. Uterine discomfort