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Sunday, February 16, 2014

TEST III - Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations part 2

TEST III - Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations part 2

50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat
laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how
to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should
include which instruction?
a. "Keep the stoma uncovered."
b. "Keep the stoma dry."
c. "Have a family member perform stoma
care initially until you get used to the
procedure."
d. "Keep the stoma moist."

51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the
nurse, "Which is the most common type of
cancer in women?" The nurse replies that it's
breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the
most deaths in women?
a. Breast cancer
b. Lung cancer
c. Brain cancer
d. Colon and rectal cancer

52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner's
syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs and
affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When
assessing for signs and symptoms of this
syndrome, the nurse should note:
a. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and
anhidrosis on the affected side of the
face.
b. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss,
and fever.
c. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of
arm and hand muscles, both on the
affected side.
d. hoarseness and dysphagia.         

53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should
reply that it stands for:
a. prostate-specific antigen, which is used
to screen for prostate cancer.
b. protein serum antigen, which is used to
determine protein levels.
c. pneumococcal strep antigen, which is a
bacteria that causes pneumonia.
d. Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which is
used to screen for cervical cancer.

54. What is the most important postoperative
instruction that nurse Kate must give a client
who has just returned from the operating room
after receiving a subarachnoid block?
a. "Avoid drinking liquids until the gag
reflex returns."
b. "Avoid eating milk products for 24
hours."
c. "Notify a nurse if you experience blood
in your urine."
d. "Remain supine for the time specified by
the physician."        

55. A male client suspected of having colorectal
cancer will require which diagnostic study to
confirm the diagnosis?
a. Stool Hematest
b. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
c. Sigmoidoscopy
d. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
scan

56. During a breast examination, which finding most
strongly suggests that the Luz has breast cancer?
a. Slight asymmetry of the breasts.
b. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of
the overlying skin
c. Bloody discharge from the nipple
d. Multiple firm, round, freely movable
masses that change with the menstrual
cycle

57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated
for possible metastasis. Which of the following is
one of the most common metastasis sites for
cancer cells?
a. Liver
b. Colon
c. Reproductive tract
d. White blood cells (WBCs)

58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a
spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of
the following would pose a threat to the client?
a. The client lies still.
b. The client asks questions.
c. The client hears thumping sounds.
d. The client wears a watch and wedding
band.

59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about
preventing osteoporosis. Which of the following
teaching points is correct?
a. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3
years is recommended to detect bone
loss.
b. To avoid fractures, the client should
avoid strenuous exercise.
c. The recommended daily allowance of
calcium may be found in a wide variety
of foods.
d. Obtaining the recommended daily
allowance of calcium requires taking a
calcium supplement.

60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse
reviews the assessment findings for
contraindications for this procedure. Which
finding is a contraindication?
a. Joint pain
b. Joint deformity
c. Joint flexion of less than 50%
d. Joint stiffness                        

61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in
the knees. Which form of arthritis is
characterized by urate deposits and joint pain,
usually in the feet and legs, and occurs primarily
in men over age 30?
a. Septic arthritis
b. Traumatic arthritis
c. Intermittent arthritis
d. Gouty arthritis

62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is ordered
for a 64-year-old client with stroke in evolution.
The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in
500 ml of saline solution. How many milliliters
per hour should be given?
a. 15 ml/hour
b. 30 ml/hour
c. 45 ml/hour
d. 50 ml/hour            

63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic
right stroke; his left arm is swollen. Which of the
following conditions may cause swelling after a
stroke?
a. Elbow contracture secondary to
spasticity
b. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing
venous return
c. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to
immobility of the ipsilateral side
d. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein
escaping from an inflamed glomerulus

64. Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of
osteoarthritis. Which of the following statement
is correct about this deformity?
a. It appears only in men
b. It appears on the distal interphalangeal
joint
c. It appears on the proximal
interphalangeal joint
d. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of
the interphalangeal joint.

65. Which of the following statements explains the
main difference between rheumatoid arthritis
and osteoarthritis?
a. Osteoarthritis is gender-specific,
rheumatoid arthritis isn’t
b. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease
rheumatoid arthritis is systemic
c. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease,
rheumatoid arthritis is localized
d. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and
subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis
doesn’t

66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking.
Which of the following statements is true about
a cane or other assistive devices?
a. A walker is a better choice than a cane.
b. The cane should be used on the affected
side
c. The cane should be used on the
unaffected side
d. A client with osteoarthritis should be
encouraged to ambulate without the
cane

67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled
to receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin. There is no
70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the
nurse may give the client:
a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral
protamine Hagedorn (NPH).
b. 21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH.
c. 10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH.
d. 20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH.

68. Nurse Len should expect to administer which
medication to a client with gout?
a. aspirin
b. furosemide (Lasix)
c. colchicines
d. calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)

69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension is
diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism.
This diagnosis indicates that the client's
hypertension is caused by excessive hormone
secretion from which of the following glands?
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Parathyroid

70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the
doctor orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing
change every shift, and blood glucose
monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are
wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
a. They contain exudate and provide a
moist wound environment.
b. They protect the wound from
mechanical trauma and promote
healing.
c. They debride the wound and promote
healing by secondary intention.
d. They prevent the entrance of
microorganisms and minimize wound
discomfort.

71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute
addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would
the nurse expect to find?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyperglycemia

72. A client is admitted for treatment of the
syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH). Which nursing intervention is
appropriate?
a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
b. Encouraging increased oral intake
c. Restricting fluids
d. Administering glucose-containing I.V.
fluids as ordered              

73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has
been working hard for the last 3 months to
control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet
and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of
the client's efforts, the nurse should check:
a. urine glucose level.
b. fasting blood glucose level.
c. serum fructosamine level.
d. glycosylated hemoglobin level.

74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine
Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7
a.m. At what time would the nurse expect the
client to be most at risk for a hypoglycemic
reaction?
a. 10:00 am
b. Noon
c. 4:00 pm
d. 10:00 pm             

75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing
which substances?
a. Glucocorticoids and androgens
b. Catecholamines and epinephrine
c. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines
d. Norepinephrine and epinephrine

76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy,
Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and
hyperirritability of the nervous system. When
questioned, the client reports numbness and
tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting
a life-threatening electrolyte disturbance, the
nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which
electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows
thyroid surgery?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypermagnesemia

77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients
who smoke and can't be used as a general
indicator of cancer?
a. Acid phosphatase level
b. Serum calcitonin level
c. Alkaline phosphatase level
d. Carcinoembryonic antigen level

78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the
medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings
are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
a. Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea
b. Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor
c. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia
d. Itching, rash, and jaundice

79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive
about pregnancy, the nurse would know more
teaching is necessary when the client says:
a. The baby can get the virus from my
placenta."
b. "I'm planning on starting on birth control
pills."
c. "Not everyone who has the virus gives
birth to a baby who has the virus."
d. "I'll need to have a C-section if I become
pregnant and have a baby."             

80. When preparing Judy with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for
discharge to the home, the nurse should be sure
to include which instruction?
a. "Put on disposable gloves before
bathing."
b. "Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling
water."
c. "Avoid sharing such articles as
toothbrushes and razors."
d. "Avoid eating foods from serving dishes
shared by other family members."

81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client
admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of
findings should the nurse expect when assessing
the client?
a. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulse
pressure
b. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue
c. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain
d. Angina, double vision, and anorexia

82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client
develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse
Celestina suspects the client is experiencing
anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do
first?
a. Page an anesthesiologist immediately
and prepare to intubate the client.
b. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed,
and prepare to intubate the client if
necessary.
c. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as
prescribed, and continue to monitor the
client's vital signs.
d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and
begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered.

83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about
to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation.
When teaching the client about aspirin, the
nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged
aspirin therapy. These include:
a. weight gain.
b. fine motor tremors.
c. respiratory acidosis.
d. bilateral hearing loss.

84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering
from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client
expresses a desire to learn as much as possible
about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client
about the immune system, the nurse states that
adaptive immunity is provided by which type of
white blood cell?
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Monocyte
d. Lymphocyte

85. In an individual with Sjögren's syndrome, nursing
care should focus on:
a. moisture replacement.
b. electrolyte balance.
c. nutritional supplementation.
d. arrhythmia management.        

86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia,
Mathew develops abdominal pain, fever, and
"horse barn" smelling diarrhea. It would be most
important for the nurse to advise the physician
to order:
a. enzyme-linked immunosuppressant
assay (ELISA) test.
b. electrolyte panel and hemogram.
c. stool for Clostridium difficile test.
d. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen.

87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for
fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6
weeks. To confirm that the client has been
infected with the human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
a. E-rosette immunofluorescence.
b. quantification of T-lymphocytes.
c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA).
d. Western blot test with ELISA.

88. A complete blood count is commonly performed
before a Joe goes into surgery. What does this
test seek to identify?
a. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated
by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
and creatinine levels
b. Low levels of urine constituents normally
excreted in the urine
c. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and
hemoglobin (Hb) levels
d. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect
the blood's ability to coagulate properly        

89. While monitoring a client for the development
of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC),
the nurse should take note of what assessment
parameters?
a. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and
partial thromboplastin time
b. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and
white blood cell (WBC) count
c. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and
potassium levels
d. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet
count             

90. When taking a dietary history from a newly
admitted female client, Nurse Len should
remember that which of the following foods is a
common allergen?
a. Bread
b. Carrots
c. Orange
d. Strawberries

91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient
clinic. Which of the following phone calls should
the nurse return first?
a. A client with hepatitis A who states, “My
arms and legs are itching.”
b. A client with cast on the right leg who
states, “I have a funny feeling in my right
leg.”
c. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine
who states, “I am so nauseous that I
can’t eat.”
d. A client with rheumatoid arthritis who
states, “I am having trouble sleeping.”

92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgical
floor and has just received report from the
previous shift. Which of the following clients
should the nurse see first?
a. A 35-year-old admitted three hours ago
with a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area of
dark drainage noted on the dressing.
b. A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy
two days ago; 23 ml of serosanguinous
fluid noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
c. A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due
to an accident; no drainage noted in the
previous eight hours.
d. A 62-year-old who had an abdominalperineal
resection three days ago; client
complaints of chills.

93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a
thyroidectomy 12 hours ago for treatment of
Grave’s disease. The nurse would be most
concerned if which of the following was
observed?
a. Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16,
oral temperature 99 degrees Fahrenheit.
b. The client supports his head and neck
when turning his head to the right.
c. The client spontaneously flexes his wrist
when the blood pressure is obtained.
d. The client is drowsy and complains of
sore throat.

94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe pain
in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. To
assist with pain relief, the nurse should take
which of the following actions?
a. Encourage the client to change positions
frequently in bed.
b. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hours
and PRN.
c. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a
heating pad.
d. Use comfort measures and pillows to
position the client.

95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal
dialysis. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?
a. Assess for a bruit and a thrill.
b. Warm the dialysate solution.
c. Position the client on the left side.
d. Insert a Foley catheter

96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with
right-sided weakness how to use cane. Which of
the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the
client to the nurse, indicates that the teaching
was effective?
a. The client holds the cane with his right
hand, moves the can forward followed
by the right leg, and then moves the left
leg.
b. The client holds the cane with his right
hand, moves the cane forward followed
by his left leg, and then moves the right
leg.
c. The client holds the cane with his left
hand, moves the cane forward followed
by the right leg, and then moves the left
leg.
d. The client holds the cane with his left
hand, moves the cane forward followed
by his left leg, and then moves the right
leg.

97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing home
setting. The client is occasionally confused and
her gait is often unsteady. Which of the
following actions, if taken by the nurse, is most
appropriate?
a. Ask the woman’s family to provide
personal items such as photos or
mementos.
b. Select a room with a bed by the door so
the woman can look down the hall.
c. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the
room with her roommate.
d. Encourage the woman to ambulate in
the halls twice a day.

98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how
to use a standard aluminum walker. Which of
the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the
client, indicates that the nurse’s teaching was
effective?
a. The client slowly pushes the walker
forward 12 inches, then takes small
steps forward while leaning on the
walker.
b. The client lifts the walker, moves it
forward 10 inches, and then takes
several small steps forward.
c. The client supports his weight on the
walker while advancing it forward, then
takes small steps while balancing on the
walker.
d. The client slides the walker 18 inches
forward, then takes small steps while
holding onto the walker for balance.

99. Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly
clients in a residential home setting. The nurse
knows that the elderly are at greater risk of
developing sensory deprivation for what reason?
a. Increased sensitivity to the side effects
of medications.
b. Decreased visual, auditory, and
gustatory abilities.
c. Isolation from their families and familiar
surroundings.
d. Decrease musculoskeletal function and
mobility.

100. A male client with emphysema becomes
restless and confused. What step should
nurse Jasmine take next?
a. Encourage the client to perform pursed
lip breathing.
b. Check the client’s temperature.
c. Assess the client’s potassium level.

d. Increase the client’s oxygen flow rate.

TEST III - Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations partt 1

TEST III - Care of Clients with Physiologic and
Psychosocial Alterations part 1

1. Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage is
normal 4 days after a sigmoid colostomy when
the stool is:
a. Green liquid
b. Solid formed
c. Loose, bloody
d. Semiformed

2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light
for a male client with a right-sided brain attack
and left homonymous hemianopsia?
a. On the client’s right side
b. On the client’s left side
c. Directly in front of the client
d. Where the client like                            

3. A male client is admitted to the emergency
department following an accident. What are the
first nursing actions of the nurse?
a. Check respiration, circulation,
neurological response.
b. Align the spine, check pupils, and check
for hemorrhage.
c. Check respirations, stabilize spine, and
check circulation.
d. Assess level of consciousness and
circulation.

4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse
Arthur should know that it reduces preload and
relieves angina by:
a. Increasing contractility and slowing
heart rate.
b. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate.
c. Decreasing contractility and oxygen
consumption.
d. Decreasing venous return through
vasodilation.

5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is postmyocardial
infarction (MI) slumped on the side
rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or
shouting. Which is the nurse next action?
a. Call for help and note the time.
b. Clear the airway
c. Give two sharp thumps to the
precordium, and check the pulse.
d. Administer two quick blows.

6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering
from gastro-intestinal bleeding. The nurse
should:
a. Plan care so the client can receive 8
hours of uninterrupted sleep each night.
b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.
c. Make sure that the client takes food and
medications at prescribed intervals.
d. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours.

7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before
admission, and has been receiving heparin I.V.
for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
is 68 seconds. What should Nurse Carla do?
a. Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin and
notify the physician.
b. Continue treatment as ordered.
c. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT.
d. Increase the dosage, because the level is
lower than normal.

8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should the
drainage appliance be applied to the stoma?
a. 24 hours later, when edema has
subsided.
b. In the operating room.
c. After the ileostomy begin to function.
d. When the client is able to begin self-care
procedures.                     

9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be
important that the nurse immediately position
the client in:
a. On the side, to prevent obstruction of
airway by tongue.
b. Flat on back.
c. On the back, with knees flexed 15
degrees.
d. Flat on the stomach, with the head
turned to the side.

10. While monitoring a male client several hours
after a motor vehicle accident, which
assessment data suggest increasing intracranial
pressure?
a. Blood pressure is decreased from
160/90 to 110/70.
b. Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an
occasional skipped beat.
c. The client is oriented when aroused
from sleep, and goes back to sleep
immediately.
d. The client refuses dinner because of
anorexia.

11. Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with
pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms
may appear first?
a. Altered mental status and dehydration
b. Fever and chills
c. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea
d. Pleuritic chest pain and cough

12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which
of the following symptoms will be exhibit?
a. Chest and lower back pain
b. Chills, fever, night sweats, and
hemoptysis
c. Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) and
nausea
d. Headache and photophobia

13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the
emergency department. He’s tachypneic and
afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36
breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough.
He recently had a cold. Form this history; the
client may have which of the following
conditions?
a. Acute asthma
b. Bronchial pneumonia
c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)
d. Emphysema

14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain.
She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4
breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she
might have which of the following reactions?
a. Asthma attack
b. Respiratory arrest
c. Seizure
d. Wake up on his own

15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for elective
knee surgery. Physical examination reveals
shallow respirations but no sign of respiratory
distress. Which of the following is a normal
physiologic change related to aging?
a. Increased elastic recoil of the lungs
b. Increased number of functional
capillaries in the alveoli
c. Decreased residual volume
d. Decreased vital capacity

16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receiving
lidocaine I.V. Which factor is the most relevant
to administration of this medication?
a. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation
(SaO2) when measured with a pulse
oximeter.
b. Increase in systemic blood pressure.
c. Presence of premature ventricular
contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac
monitor.
d. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an
anticoagulant. The nurse should teach the client
to:
a. Report incidents of diarrhea.
b. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
c. Use a straight razor when shaving.
d. Take aspirin to pain relief.

18. Nurse Lhynnette is preparing a site for the
insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse should
treat excess hair at the site by:
a. Leaving the hair intact
b. Shaving the area
c. Clipping the hair in the area
d. Removing the hair with a depilatory.

19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female
with osteoporosis. When teaching the client, the
nurse should include information about which
major complication:
a. Bone fracture
b. Loss of estrogen
c. Negative calcium balance
d. Dowager’s hump

20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to
perform BSE. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to
discover:
a. Cancerous lumps
b. Areas of thickness or fullness
c. Changes from previous examinations.
d. Fibrocystic masses          

21. When caring for a female client who is being
treated for hyperthyroidism, it is important to:
a. Provide extra blankets and clothing to
keep the client warm.
b. Monitor the client for signs of
restlessness, sweating, and excessive
weight loss during thyroid replacement
therapy.
c. Balance the client’s periods of activity
and rest.
d. Encourage the client to be active to
prevent constipation.                  

22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of
atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of
atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage the
client to:
a. Avoid focusing on his weight.
b. Increase his activity level.
c. Follow a regular diet.
d. Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle.

23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. Nurse
Greta must logroll a client following a:
a. Laminectomy
b. Thoracotomy
c. Hemorrhoidectomy
d. Cystectomy.         

24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removal
with intraocular lens implant. Nurse Oliver is
giving the client discharge instructions. These
instructions should include which of the
following?
a. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than
5 lb (2.25 kg).
b. Lie on your abdomen when in bed
c. Keep rooms brightly lit.
d. Avoiding straining during bowel
movement or bending at the waist.

25. George should be taught about testicular
examinations during:
a. when sexual activity starts
b. After age 69
c. After age 40
d. Before age 20.

26. A male client undergone a colon resection. While
turning him, wound dehiscence with
evisceration occurs. Nurse Trish first response is
to:
a. Call the physician
b. Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on
the wound.
c. Take a blood pressure and pulse.
d. Pull the dehiscence closed.

27. Nurse Audrey is caring for a client who has
suffered a severe cerebrovascular accident.
During routine assessment, the nurse notices
Cheyne- Strokes respirations. Cheyne-strokes
respirations are:
a. A progressively deeper breaths followed
by shallower breaths with apneic
periods.
b. Rapid, deep breathing with abrupt
pauses between each breath.
c. Rapid, deep breathing and irregular
breathing without pauses.
d. Shallow breathing with an increased
respiratory rate.

28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart
failure. The breath sounds commonly
auscultated in clients with heart failure are:
a. Tracheal
b. Fine crackles
c. Coarse crackles
d. Friction rubs

29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth experiencing an
acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing
and breath sounds aren’t audible. The reason for
this change is that:
a. The attack is over.
b. The airways are so swollen that no air
cannot get through.
c. The swelling has decreased.
d. Crackles have replaced wheezes.

30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During
the active seizure phase, the nurse should:
a. Place the client on his back remove
dangerous objects, and insert a bite
block.
b. Place the client on his side, remove
dangerous objects, and insert a bite
block.
c. Place the client o his back, remove
dangerous objects, and hold down his
arms.
d. Place the client on his side, remove
dangerous objects, and protect his head.

31. After insertion of a cheat tube for a
pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive
with neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent
breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda
suspects a tension pneumothorax has occurred.
What cause of tension pneumothorax should the
nurse check for?
a. Infection of the lung.
b. Kinked or obstructed chest tube
c. Excessive water in the water-seal
chamber
d. Excessive chest tube drainage

32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client; the
client begins choking on his lunch. He’s coughing
forcefully. The nurse should:
a. Stand him up and perform the
abdominal thrust maneuver from
behind.
b. Lay him down, straddle him, and
perform the abdominal thrust
maneuver.
c. Leave him to get assistance
d. Stay with him but not intervene at this
time.

33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year
old client. Which information will be most useful
to the nurse for planning care?
a. General health for the last 10 years.
b. Current health promotion activities.
c. Family history of diseases.
d. Marital status.

34. When performing oral care on a comatose client,
Nurse Krina should:
a. Apply lemon glycerin to the client’s lips
at least every 2 hours.
b. Brush the teeth with client lying supine.
c. Place the client in a side lying position,
with the head of the bed lowered.
d. Clean the client’s mouth with hydrogen
peroxide.                        

35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a
diagnosis of dehydration and change in mental
status. He’s being hydrated with L.V. fluids.
When the nurse takes his vital signs, she notes
he has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C) a cough
producing yellow sputum and pleuritic chest
pain. The nurse suspects this client may have
which of the following conditions?
a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)
b. Myocardial infarction (MI)
c. Pneumonia
d. Tuberculosis

36. Nurse Oliver is working in an outpatient clinic.
He has been alerted that there is an outbreak of
tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients
entering the clinic today most likely to have TB?
a. A 16-year-old female high school
student
b. A 33-year-old day-care worker
c. A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a
history of alcoholism
d. A 54-year-old businessman

37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be
sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware that
which of the following reasons this is done?
a. To confirm the diagnosis
b. To determine if a repeat skin test is
needed
c. To determine the extent of lesions
d. To determine if this is a primary or
secondary infection

38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratory
and expiratory wheezes and a decreased forced
expiratory volume should be treated with which
of the following classes of medication right
away?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Bronchodilators
c. Inhaled steroids
d. Oral steroids

39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year
history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes
per day has a chronic cough producing thick
sputum, peripheral edema and cyanotic nail
beds. Based on this information, he most likely
has which of the following conditions?
a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema
Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital with
diagnosis of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.

40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone
marrow transplantation. Which statement about
bone marrow transplantation is not correct?
a. The patient is under local anesthesia
during the procedure
b. The aspirated bone marrow is mixed
with heparin.
c. The aspiration site is the posterior or
anterior iliac crest.
d. The recipient receives
cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4
consecutive days before the procedure.

41. After several days of admission, Francis becomes
disoriented and complains of frequent
headaches. The nurse in-charge first action
would be:
a. Call the physician
b. Document the patient’s status in his
charts.
c. Prepare oxygen treatment
d. Raise the side rails                

42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse,
“How can I be anemic if this disease causes
increased my white blood cell production?” The
nurse in-charge best response would be that the
increased number of white blood cells (WBC) is:
a. Crowd red blood cells
b. Are not responsible for the anemia.
c. Uses nutrients from other cells
d. Have an abnormally short life span of
cells.

43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probably
not reveal:
a. Predominance of lymhoblasts
b. Leukocytosis
c. Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow
d. Elevated thrombocyte counts                                      

44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial
occlusion of the left leg undergoes an
emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the
nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his left foot
using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse
immediately notifies the physician, and asks her
to prepare the client for surgery. As the nurse
enters the client’s room to prepare him, he
states that he won’t have any more surgery.
Which of the following is the best initial
response by the nurse?
a. Explain the risks of not having the
surgery
b. Notifying the physician immediately
c. Notifying the nursing supervisor
d. Recording the client’s refusal in the
nurses’ notes

45. During the endorsement, which of the following
clients should the on-duty nurse assess first?
a. The 58-year-old client who was admitted
2 days ago with heart failure, blood
pressure of 126/76 mm Hg, and a
respiratory rate of 22 breaths/ minute.
b. The 89-year-old client with end-stage
right-sided heart failure, blood pressure
of 78/50 mm Hg, and a “do not
resuscitate” order
c. The 62-year-old client who was admitted
1 day ago with thrombophlebitis and is
receiving L.V. heparin
d. The 75-year-old client who was admitted
1 hour ago with new-onset atrial
fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem
(Cardizem)

46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of
substernal chest pain and states that her heart
feels like “it’s racing out of the chest”. She
reports no history of cardiac disorders. The
nurse attaches her to a cardiac monitor and
notes sinus tachycardia with a rate of
136beats/minutes. Breath sounds are clear and
the respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minutes.
Which of the following drugs should the nurse
question the client about using?
a. Barbiturates
b. Opioids
c. Cocaine
d. Benzodiazepines

47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse incharge
that she has found a painless lump in her
right breast during her monthly selfexamination.
Which assessment finding would
strongly suggest that this client's lump is
cancerous?
a. Eversion of the right nipple and mobile
mass
b. Nonmobile mass with irregular edges
c. Mobile mass that is soft and easily
delineated
d. Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes

48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the
nurse, "What is the usual treatment for this type
of cancer?" Which treatment should the nurse
name?
a. Surgery
b. Chemotherapy
c. Radiation
d. Immunotherapy

49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious
lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion
according to the TNM staging system as follows:
TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?
a. No evidence of primary tumor, no
abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no
evidence of distant metastasis
b. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional
lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant
metastasis
c. Can't assess tumor or regional lymph
nodes and no evidence of metastasis
d. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable
metastasis of the regional lymph nodes,
and ascending degrees of distant
metastasis

50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat
laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how
to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should
include which instruction?
a. "Keep the stoma uncovered."
b. "Keep the stoma dry."
c. "Have a family member perform stoma
care initially until you get used to the
procedure."

d. "Keep the stoma moist."
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