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Sunday, October 26, 2014

PRACTICE TEST I FOUNDATION OF NURSING

PRACTICE TEST I FOUNDATION OF NURSING

1. Which element in the circular chain of infection
can be eliminated by preserving skin integrity?
a. Host
b. Reservoir
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry

2. Which of the following will probably result in a
break in sterile technique for respiratory
isolation?
a. Opening the patient’s window to the
outside environment
b. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
c. Opening the door of the patient’s room
leading into the hospital corridor
d. Failing to wear gloves when
administering a bed bath

3. Which of the following patients is at greater risk
for contracting an infection?
a. A patient with leukopenia
b. A patient receiving broad-spectrum
antibiotics
c. A postoperative patient who has
undergone orthopedic surgery
d. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

4. Effective hand washing requires the use of:
a. Soap or detergent to promote
emulsification
b. Hot water to destroy bacteria
c. A disinfectant to increase surface
tension
d. All of the above

5. After routine patient contact, hand washing
should last at least:
a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2 minute
d. 3 minutes

6. Which of the following procedures always
requires surgical asepsis?
a. Vaginal instillation of conjugated
estrogen
b. Urinary catheterization
c. Nasogastric tube insertion
d. Colostomy irrigation

7. Sterile technique is used whenever:
a. Strict isolation is required
b. Terminal disinfection is performed
c. Invasive procedures are performed
d. Protective isolation is necessary

8. Which of the following constitutes a break in
sterile technique while preparing a sterile field
for a dressing change?
a. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile
gloves, to handle a sterile item
b. Touching the outside wrapper of
sterilized material without sterile gloves
c. Placing a sterile object on the edge of
the sterile field
d. Pouring out a small amount of solution
(15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution
into a sterile container

9. A natural body defense that plays an active role
in preventing infection is:
a. Yawning
b. Body hair
c. Hiccupping
d. Rapid eye movements

10. All of the following statement are true about
donning sterile gloves except:
a. The first glove should be picked up by
grasping the inside of the cuff.
b. The second glove should be picked up by
inserting the gloved fingers under the
cuff outside the glove.
c. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding
the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff
and pulling the glove over the wrist
d. The inside of the glove is considered
sterile

11. When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse
should be careful that the first thing she touches
is the:
a. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the
gown
b. Waist tie in front of the gown
c. Cuffs of the gown
d. Inside of the gown

12. Which of the following nursing interventions is
considered the most effective form or universal
precautions?
a. Cap all used needles before removing
them from their syringes
b. Discard all used uncapped needles and
syringes in an impenetrable protective
container
c. Wear gloves when administering IM
injections
d. Follow enteric precautions

13. All of the following measures are recommended
to prevent pressure ulcers except:
a. Massaging the reddened are with lotion
b. Using a water or air mattress
c. Adhering to a schedule for positioning
and turning
d. Providing meticulous skin care

14. Which of the following blood tests should be
performed before a blood transfusion?
a. Prothrombin and coagulation time
b. Blood typing and cross-matching
c. Bleeding and clotting time
d. Complete blood count (CBC) and
electrolyte levels.

15. The primary purpose of a platelet count is to
evaluate the:
a. Potential for clot formation
b. Potential for bleeding
c. Presence of an antigen-antibody
response
d. Presence of cardiac enzymes

16. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC)
counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
a. 4,500/mm³
b. 7,000/mm³
c. 10,000/mm³
d. 25,000/mm³

17. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of
furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to
exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle
weakness. These symptoms probably indicate
that the patient is experiencing:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Anorexia
d. Dysphagia

18. Which of the following statements about chest
X-ray is false?
a. No contradictions exist for this test
b. Before the procedure, the patient should
remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and
buttons above the waist
c. A signed consent is not required
d. Eating, drinking, and medications are
allowed before this test

19. The most appropriate time for the nurse to
obtain a sputum specimen for culture is:
a. Early in the morning
b. After the patient eats a light breakfast
c. After aerosol therapy
d. After chest physiotherapy

20. A patient with no known allergies is to receive
penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the
medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on
the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing
action would be to:
a. Withhold the moderation and notify the
physician
b. Administer the medication and notify
the physician
c. Administer the medication with an
antihistamine
d. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash

21. All of the following nursing interventions are
correct when using the Z- track method of drug
injection except:
a. Prepare the injection site with alcohol
b. Use a needle that’s a least 1” long
c. Aspirate for blood before injection
d. Rub the site vigorously after the
injection to promote absorption

22. The correct method for determining the vastus
lateralis site for I.M. injection is to:
a. Locate the upper aspect of the upper
outer quadrant of the buttock about 5 to
8 cm below the iliac crest
b. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion
process and the midpoint lateral aspect
of the arm
c. Palpate a 1” circular area anterior to the
umbilicus
d. Divide the area between the greater
femoral trochanter and the lateral
femoral condyle into thirds, and select
the middle third on the anterior of the
thigh

23. The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for
I.M. injections because it:
a. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of
medication
b. Bruises too easily
c. Can be used only when the patient is
lying down
d. Does not readily parenteral medication

24. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection
is:
a. 18G, 1 ½” long
b. 22G, 1” long
c. 22G, 1 ½” long
d. 25G, 5/8” long

25. The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal
injection is:
a. 20G
b. 22G
c. 25G
d. 26G

26. Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:
a. IM injection or an IV solution
b. IV or an intradermal injection
c. Intradermal or subcutaneous injection
d. IM or a subcutaneous injection

27. The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a
patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:
a. 0.6 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 60 mg
d. 600 mg

28. The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose
5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the
flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
a. 5 gtt/minute
b. 13 gtt/minute
c. 25 gtt/minute
d. 50 gtt/minute

29. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a
hemolytic reaction to blood transfusion?
a. Hemoglobinuria
b. Chest pain
c. Urticaria
d. Distended neck veins

30. Which of the following conditions may require
fluid restriction?
a. Fever
b. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
c. Renal Failure
d. Dehydration

31. All of the following are common signs and
symptoms of phlebitis except:
a. Pain or discomfort at the IV insertion site
b. Edema and warmth at the IV insertion
site
c. A red streak exiting the IV insertion site
d. Frank bleeding at the insertion site

32. The best way of determining whether a patient
has learned to instill ear medication properly is
for the nurse to:
a. Ask the patient if he/she has used ear
drops before
b. Have the patient repeat the nurse’s
instructions using her own words
c. Demonstrate the procedure to the
patient and encourage to ask questions
d. Ask the patient to demonstrate the
procedure

33. Which of the following types of medications can
be administered via gastrostomy tube?
a. Any oral medications
b. Capsules whole contents are dissolve in
water
c. Enteric-coated tablets that are
thoroughly dissolved in water
d. Most tablets designed for oral use,
except for extended-duration
compounds

34. A patient who develops hives after receiving an
antibiotic is exhibiting drug:
a. Tolerance
b. Idiosyncrasy
c. Synergism
d. Allergy

35. A patient has returned to his room after femoral
arteriography. All of the following are
appropriate nursing interventions except:
a. Assess femoral, popliteal, and pedal
pulses every 15 minutes for 2 hours
b. Check the pressure dressing for
sanguineous drainage
c. Assess vital signs every 15 minutes for 2
hours
d. Order a hemoglobin and hematocrit
count 1 hour after the arteriography

36. The nurse explains to a patient that a cough:
a. Is a protective response to clear the
respiratory tract of irritants
b. Is primarily a voluntary action
c. Is induced by the administration of an
antitussive drug
d. Can be inhibited by “splinting” the
abdomen

37. An infected patient has chills and begins
shivering. The best nursing intervention is to:
a. Apply iced alcohol sponges
b. Provide increased cool liquids
c. Provide additional bedclothes
d. Provide increased ventilation

38. A clinical nurse specialist is a nurse who has:
a. Been certified by the National League for
Nursing
b. Received credentials from the Philippine
Nurses’ Association
c. Graduated from an associate degree
program and is a registered professional
nurse
d. Completed a master’s degree in the
prescribed clinical area and is a
registered professional nurse.

39. The purpose of increasing urine acidity through
dietary means is to:
a. Decrease burning sensations
b. Change the urine’s color
c. Change the urine’s concentration
d. Inhibit the growth of microorganisms

40. Clay colored stools indicate:
a. Upper GI bleeding
b. Impending constipation
c. An effect of medication
d. Bile obstruction

41. In which step of the nursing process would the
nurse ask a patient if the medication she
administered relieved his pain?
a. Assessment
b. Analysis
c. Planning
d. Evaluation

42. All of the following are good sources of vitamin A
except:
a. White potatoes
b. Carrots
c. Apricots
d. Egg yolks

43. Which of the following is a primary nursing
intervention necessary for all patients with a
Foley Catheter in place?
a. Maintain the drainage tubing and
collection bag level with the patient’s
bladder
b. Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin
solution three times a daily
c. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4
hours to maintain the bladder’s elasticity
d. Maintain the drainage tubing and
collection bag below bladder level to
facilitate drainage by gravity

44. The ELISA test is used to:
a. Screen blood donors for antibodies to
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
b. Test blood to be used for transfusion for
HIV antibodies
c. Aid in diagnosing a patient with AIDS
d. All of the above

45. The two blood vessels most commonly used for
TPN infusion are the:
a. Subclavian and jugular veins
b. Brachial and subclavian veins
c. Femoral and subclavian veins
d. Brachial and femoral veins

46. Effective skin disinfection before a surgical
procedure includes which of the following
methods?
a. Shaving the site on the day before
surgery
b. Applying a topical antiseptic to the skin
on the evening before surgery
c. Having the patient take a tub bath on
the morning of surgery
d. Having the patient shower with an
antiseptic soap on the evening v=before
and the morning of surgery

47. When transferring a patient from a bed to a
chair, the nurse should use which muscles to
avoid back injury?
a. Abdominal muscles
b. Back muscles
c. Leg muscles
d. Upper arm muscles

48. Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients
with which of the following conditions?
a. Increases partial thromboplastin time
b. Acute pulsus paradoxus
c. An impaired or traumatized blood vessel
wall
d. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD)

49. In a recumbent, immobilized patient, lung
ventilation can become altered, leading to such
respiratory complications as:
a. Respiratory acidosis, ateclectasis, and
hypostatic pneumonia
b. Appneustic breathing, atypical
pneumonia and respiratory alkalosis
c. Cheyne-Strokes respirations and
spontaneous pneumothorax
d. Kussmail’s respirations and
hypoventilation

50. Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting
in such disorders as
a. Increased urine acidity and relaxation of
the perineal muscles, causing
incontinence
b. Urine retention, bladder distention, and
infection
c. Diuresis, natriuresis, and decreased
urine specific gravity
d. Decreased calcium and phosphate levels

in the urine

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