PRACTICE TEST I FOUNDATION OF NURSING

PRACTICE TEST I FOUNDATION OF NURSING

1. Which element in the circular chain of infection

can be eliminated by preserving skin integrity?

a. Host

b. Reservoir

c. Mode of transmission

d. Portal of entry

2. Which of the following will probably result in a

break in sterile technique for respiratory

isolation?

a. Opening the patient’s window to the

outside environment

b. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator

c. Opening the door of the patient’s room

leading into the hospital corridor

d. Failing to wear gloves when

administering a bed bath

3. Which of the following patients is at greater risk

for contracting an infection?

a. A patient with leukopenia

b. A patient receiving broad-spectrum

antibiotics

c. A postoperative patient who has

undergone orthopedic surgery

d. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

4. Effective hand washing requires the use of:

a. Soap or detergent to promote

emulsification

b. Hot water to destroy bacteria

c. A disinfectant to increase surface

tension

d. All of the above

5. After routine patient contact, hand washing

should last at least:

a. 30 seconds

b. 1 minute

c. 2 minute

d. 3 minutes

6. Which of the following procedures always

requires surgical asepsis?

a. Vaginal instillation of conjugated

estrogen

b. Urinary catheterization

c. Nasogastric tube insertion

d. Colostomy irrigation

7. Sterile technique is used whenever:

a. Strict isolation is required

b. Terminal disinfection is performed

c. Invasive procedures are performed

d. Protective isolation is necessary

8. Which of the following constitutes a break in

sterile technique while preparing a sterile field

for a dressing change?

a. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile

gloves, to handle a sterile item

b. Touching the outside wrapper of

sterilized material without sterile gloves

c. Placing a sterile object on the edge of

the sterile field

d. Pouring out a small amount of solution

(15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution

into a sterile container

9. A natural body defense that plays an active role

in preventing infection is:

a. Yawning

b. Body hair

c. Hiccupping

d. Rapid eye movements

10. All of the following statement are true about

donning sterile gloves except:

a. The first glove should be picked up by

grasping the inside of the cuff.

b. The second glove should be picked up by

inserting the gloved fingers under the

cuff outside the glove.

c. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding

the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff

and pulling the glove over the wrist

d. The inside of the glove is considered

sterile

11. When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse

should be careful that the first thing she touches

is the:

a. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the

gown

b. Waist tie in front of the gown

c. Cuffs of the gown

d. Inside of the gown

12. Which of the following nursing interventions is

considered the most effective form or universal

precautions?

a. Cap all used needles before removing

them from their syringes

b. Discard all used uncapped needles and

syringes in an impenetrable protective

container

c. Wear gloves when administering IM

injections

d. Follow enteric precautions

13. All of the following measures are recommended

to prevent pressure ulcers except:

a. Massaging the reddened are with lotion

b. Using a water or air mattress

c. Adhering to a schedule for positioning

and turning

d. Providing meticulous skin care

14. Which of the following blood tests should be

performed before a blood transfusion?

a. Prothrombin and coagulation time

b. Blood typing and cross-matching

c. Bleeding and clotting time

d. Complete blood count (CBC) and

electrolyte levels.

15. The primary purpose of a platelet count is to

evaluate the:

a. Potential for clot formation

b. Potential for bleeding

c. Presence of an antigen-antibody

response

d. Presence of cardiac enzymes

16. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC)

counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

a. 4,500/mm³

b. 7,000/mm³

c. 10,000/mm³

d. 25,000/mm³

17. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of

furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to

exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle

weakness. These symptoms probably indicate

that the patient is experiencing:

a. Hypokalemia

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Anorexia

d. Dysphagia

18. Which of the following statements about chest

X-ray is false?

a. No contradictions exist for this test

b. Before the procedure, the patient should

remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and

buttons above the waist

c. A signed consent is not required

d. Eating, drinking, and medications are

allowed before this test

19. The most appropriate time for the nurse to

obtain a sputum specimen for culture is:

a. Early in the morning

b. After the patient eats a light breakfast

c. After aerosol therapy

d. After chest physiotherapy

20. A patient with no known allergies is to receive

penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the

medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on

the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing

action would be to:

a. Withhold the moderation and notify the

physician

b. Administer the medication and notify

the physician

c. Administer the medication with an

antihistamine

d. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash

21. All of the following nursing interventions are

correct when using the Z- track method of drug

injection except:

a. Prepare the injection site with alcohol

b. Use a needle that’s a least 1” long

c. Aspirate for blood before injection

d. Rub the site vigorously after the

injection to promote absorption

22. The correct method for determining the vastus

lateralis site for I.M. injection is to:

a. Locate the upper aspect of the upper

outer quadrant of the buttock about 5 to

8 cm below the iliac crest

b. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion

process and the midpoint lateral aspect

of the arm

c. Palpate a 1” circular area anterior to the

umbilicus

d. Divide the area between the greater

femoral trochanter and the lateral

femoral condyle into thirds, and select

the middle third on the anterior of the

thigh

23. The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for

I.M. injections because it:

a. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of

medication

b. Bruises too easily

c. Can be used only when the patient is

lying down

d. Does not readily parenteral medication

24. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection

is:

a. 18G, 1 ½” long

b. 22G, 1” long

c. 22G, 1 ½” long

d. 25G, 5/8” long

25. The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal

injection is:

a. 20G

b. 22G

c. 25G

d. 26G

26. Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:

a. IM injection or an IV solution

b. IV or an intradermal injection

c. Intradermal or subcutaneous injection

d. IM or a subcutaneous injection

27. The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a

patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:

a. 0.6 mg

b. 10 mg

c. 60 mg

d. 600 mg

28. The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose

5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the

flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?

a. 5 gtt/minute

b. 13 gtt/minute

c. 25 gtt/minute

d. 50 gtt/minute

29. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a

hemolytic reaction to blood transfusion?

a. Hemoglobinuria

b. Chest pain

c. Urticaria

d. Distended neck veins

30. Which of the following conditions may require

fluid restriction?

a. Fever

b. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

c. Renal Failure

d. Dehydration

31. All of the following are common signs and

symptoms of phlebitis except:

a. Pain or discomfort at the IV insertion site

b. Edema and warmth at the IV insertion

site

c. A red streak exiting the IV insertion site

d. Frank bleeding at the insertion site

32. The best way of determining whether a patient

has learned to instill ear medication properly is

for the nurse to:

a. Ask the patient if he/she has used ear

drops before

b. Have the patient repeat the nurse’s

instructions using her own words

c. Demonstrate the procedure to the

patient and encourage to ask questions

d. Ask the patient to demonstrate the

procedure

33. Which of the following types of medications can

be administered via gastrostomy tube?

a. Any oral medications

b. Capsules whole contents are dissolve in

water

c. Enteric-coated tablets that are

thoroughly dissolved in water

d. Most tablets designed for oral use,

except for extended-duration

compounds

34. A patient who develops hives after receiving an

antibiotic is exhibiting drug:

a. Tolerance

b. Idiosyncrasy

c. Synergism

d. Allergy

35. A patient has returned to his room after femoral

arteriography. All of the following are

appropriate nursing interventions except:

a. Assess femoral, popliteal, and pedal

pulses every 15 minutes for 2 hours

b. Check the pressure dressing for

sanguineous drainage

c. Assess vital signs every 15 minutes for 2

hours

d. Order a hemoglobin and hematocrit

count 1 hour after the arteriography

36. The nurse explains to a patient that a cough:

a. Is a protective response to clear the

respiratory tract of irritants

b. Is primarily a voluntary action

c. Is induced by the administration of an

antitussive drug

d. Can be inhibited by “splinting” the

abdomen

37. An infected patient has chills and begins

shivering. The best nursing intervention is to:

a. Apply iced alcohol sponges

b. Provide increased cool liquids

c. Provide additional bedclothes

d. Provide increased ventilation

38. A clinical nurse specialist is a nurse who has:

a. Been certified by the National League for

Nursing

b. Received credentials from the Philippine

Nurses’ Association

c. Graduated from an associate degree

program and is a registered professional

nurse

d. Completed a master’s degree in the

prescribed clinical area and is a

registered professional nurse.

39. The purpose of increasing urine acidity through

dietary means is to:

a. Decrease burning sensations

b. Change the urine’s color

c. Change the urine’s concentration

d. Inhibit the growth of microorganisms

40. Clay colored stools indicate:

a. Upper GI bleeding

b. Impending constipation

c. An effect of medication

d. Bile obstruction

41. In which step of the nursing process would the

nurse ask a patient if the medication she

administered relieved his pain?

a. Assessment

b. Analysis

c. Planning

d. Evaluation

42. All of the following are good sources of vitamin A

except:

a. White potatoes

b. Carrots

c. Apricots

d. Egg yolks

43. Which of the following is a primary nursing

intervention necessary for all patients with a

Foley Catheter in place?

a. Maintain the drainage tubing and

collection bag level with the patient’s

bladder

b. Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin

solution three times a daily

c. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4

hours to maintain the bladder’s elasticity

d. Maintain the drainage tubing and

collection bag below bladder level to

facilitate drainage by gravity

44. The ELISA test is used to:

a. Screen blood donors for antibodies to

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

b. Test blood to be used for transfusion for

HIV antibodies

c. Aid in diagnosing a patient with AIDS

d. All of the above

45. The two blood vessels most commonly used for

TPN infusion are the:

a. Subclavian and jugular veins

b. Brachial and subclavian veins

c. Femoral and subclavian veins

d. Brachial and femoral veins

46. Effective skin disinfection before a surgical

procedure includes which of the following

methods?

a. Shaving the site on the day before

surgery

b. Applying a topical antiseptic to the skin

on the evening before surgery

c. Having the patient take a tub bath on

the morning of surgery

d. Having the patient shower with an

antiseptic soap on the evening v=before

and the morning of surgery

47. When transferring a patient from a bed to a

chair, the nurse should use which muscles to

avoid back injury?

a. Abdominal muscles

b. Back muscles

c. Leg muscles

d. Upper arm muscles

48. Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients

with which of the following conditions?

a. Increases partial thromboplastin time

b. Acute pulsus paradoxus

c. An impaired or traumatized blood vessel

wall

d. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

(COPD)

49. In a recumbent, immobilized patient, lung

ventilation can become altered, leading to such

respiratory complications as:

a. Respiratory acidosis, ateclectasis, and

hypostatic pneumonia

b. Appneustic breathing, atypical

pneumonia and respiratory alkalosis

c. Cheyne-Strokes respirations and

spontaneous pneumothorax

d. Kussmail’s respirations and

hypoventilation

50. Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting

in such disorders as

a. Increased urine acidity and relaxation of

the perineal muscles, causing

incontinence

b. Urine retention, bladder distention, and

infection

c. Diuresis, natriuresis, and decreased

urine specific gravity

d. Decreased calcium and phosphate levels

in the urine