TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child part 2

TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of the

Mother and Child part 2

51. The most prevalent form of meningitis among

children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by

which microorganism?

a. Hemophilus influenzae

b. Morbillivirus

c. Steptococcus pneumoniae

d. Neisseria meningitides

52. The student nurse is aware that the

pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot

and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

a. Nasal mucosa

b. Buccal mucosa

c. Skin on the abdomen

d. Skin on neck

53. Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever.

You will say that there is slow capillary refill

when the color of the nailbed that you pressed

does not return within how many seconds?

a. 3 seconds

b. 6 seconds

c. 9 seconds

d. 10 seconds

54. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness,

the nurse is aware that the severe conditions

generally require urgent referral to a hospital.

Which of the following severe conditions DOES

NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?

a. Mastoiditis

b. Severe dehydration

c. Severe pneumonia

d. Severe febrile disease

55. Myrna a public health nurse will conduct

outreach immunization in a barangay Masay

with a population of about 1500. The estimated

number of infants in the barangay would be:

a. 45 infants

b. 50 infants

c. 55 infants

d. 65 infants

56. The community nurse is aware that the

biological used in Expanded Program on

Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the

freezer?

a. DPT

b. Oral polio vaccine

c. Measles vaccine

d. MMR

57. It is the most effective way of controlling

schistosomiasis in an endemic area?

a. Use of molluscicides

b. Building of foot bridges

c. Proper use of sanitary toilets

d. Use of protective footwear, such as

rubber boots

58. Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed

with leprosy. Which of the following clients

should be classified as a case of multibacillary

leprosy?

a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear

b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear

d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

59. Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is

highly dependent on recognition of symptoms.

Which of the following is an early sign of

leprosy?

a. Macular lesions

b. Inability to close eyelids

c. Thickened painful nerves

d. Sinking of the nosebridge

60. Marie brought her 10 month old infant for

consultation because of fever, started 4 days

prior to consultation. In determining malaria

risk, what will you do?

a. Perform a tourniquet test.

b. Ask where the family resides.

c. Get a specimen for blood smear.

d. Ask if the fever is present every day.

61. Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the

RHU because of cough and colds. Following the

IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is

a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent

referral to a hospital?

a. Inability to drink

b. High grade fever

c. Signs of severe dehydration

d. Cough for more than 30 days

62. Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”.

As a nurse, using the IMCI guidelines, how will

you manage Jimmy?

a. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for

confinement.

b. Coordinate with the social worker to

enroll the child in a feeding program.

c. Make a teaching plan for the mother,

focusing on menu planning for her child.

d. Assess and treat the child for health

problems like infections and intestinal

parasitism.

63. Gina is using Oresol in the management of

diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you

what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will

tell her to:

a. Bring the child to the nearest hospital

for further assessment.

b. Bring the child to the health center for

intravenous fluid therapy.

c. Bring the child to the health center for

assessment by the physician.

d. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then

continue giving Oresol more slowly.

64. Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by his

mother to the health center because of diarrhea

for 4 to 5 times a day. Her skin goes back slowly

after a skin pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using

the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in

which category?

a. No signs of dehydration

b. Some dehydration

c. Severe dehydration

d. The data is insufficient.

65. Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by her

mother to the health center because of cough.

His respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the

Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI)

guidelines of assessment, his breathing is

considered as:

a. Fast

b. Slow

c. Normal

d. Insignificant

66. Maylene had just received her 4th dose of

tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby will

have protection against tetanus for

a. 1 year

b. 3 years

c. 5 years

d. Lifetime

67. Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG should be

discarded after how many hours of

reconstitution?

a. 2 hours

b. 4 hours

c. 8 hours

d. At the end of the day

68. The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother

that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s

nutrient needs only up to:

a. 5 months

b. 6 months

c. 1 year

d. 2 years

69. Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational age of a

conceptus that is considered viable (able to live

outside the womb) is:

a. 8 weeks

b. 12 weeks

c. 24 weeks

d. 32 weeks

70. When teaching parents of a neonate the proper

position for the neonate’s sleep, the nurse

Patricia stresses the importance of placing the

neonate on his back to reduce the risk of which

of the following?

a. Aspiration

b. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

c. Suffocation

d. Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)

71. Which finding might be seen in baby James a

neonate suspected of having an infection?

a. Flushed cheeks

b. Increased temperature

c. Decreased temperature

d. Increased activity level

72. Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation is at

increased risk during the transitional period for

which complication?

a. Anemia probably due to chronic fetal

hyposia

b. Hyperthermia due to decreased

glycogen stores

c. Hyperglycemia due to decreased

glycogen stores

d. Polycythemia probably due to chronic

fetal hypoxia

73. Marjorie has just given birth at 42 weeks’

gestation. When the nurse assessing the

neonate, which physical finding is expected?

a. A sleepy, lethargic baby

b. Lanugo covering the body

c. Desquamation of the epidermis

d. Vernix caseosa covering the body

74. After reviewing the Myrna’s maternal history of

magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition

would nurse Richard anticipate as a potential

problem in the neonate?

a. Hypoglycemia

b. Jitteriness

c. Respiratory depression

d. Tachycardia

75. Which symptom would indicate the Baby

Alexandra was adapting appropriately to extrauterine

life without difficulty?

a. Nasal flaring

b. Light audible grunting

c. Respiratory rate 40 to 60

breaths/minute

d. Respiratory rate 60 to 80

breaths/minute

76. When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a

new mother, the nurse Jenny would include

which information?

a. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change

b. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing

c. Keep the cord dry and open to air

d. Wash the cord with soap and water each

day during a tub bath.

77. Nurse John is performing an assessment on a

neonate. Which of the following findings is

considered common in the healthy neonate?

a. Simian crease

b. Conjunctival hemorrhage

c. Cystic hygroma

d. Bulging fontanelle

78. Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture the

membranes of a mother who is on labor.

Following this procedure, the nurse Hazel checks

the fetal heart tones for which the following

reasons?

a. To determine fetal well-being.

b. To assess for prolapsed cord

c. To assess fetal position

d. To prepare for an imminent delivery.

79. Which of the following would be least likely to

indicate anticipated bonding behaviors by new

parents?

a. The parents’ willingness to touch and

hold the new born.

b. The parent’s expression of interest

about the size of the new born.

c. The parents’ indication that they want to

see the newborn.

d. The parents’ interactions with each

other.

80. Following a precipitous delivery, examination of

the client's vagina reveals a fourth-degree

laceration. Which of the following would be

contraindicated when caring for this client?

a. Applying cold to limit edema during the

first 12 to 24 hours.

b. Instructing the client to use two or more

peripads to cushion the area.

c. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered.

d. Instructing the client about the

importance of perineal (kegel) exercises.

81. A pregnant woman accompanied by her

husband, seeks admission to the labor and

delivery area. She states that she's in labor and

says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal

care. Which question should the nurse Oliver ask

her first?

a. “Do you have any chronic illnesses?”

b. “Do you have any allergies?”

c. “What is your expected due date?”

d. “Who will be with you during labor?”

82. A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color.

What should the nurse do first?

a. Calm the neonate.

b. Notify the physician.

c. Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered

d. Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth

with a bulb syringe.

83. When a client states that her "water broke,"

which of the following actions would be

inappropriate for the nurse to do?

a. Observing the pooling of straw-colored fluid.

b. Checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper.

c. Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an

amniotic fluid index.

d. Observing for flakes of vernix in the vaginal discharge.

84. A baby girl is born 8 weeks premature. At birth,

she has no spontaneous respirations but is

successfully resuscitated. Within several hours

she develops respiratory grunting, cyanosis,

tachypnea, nasal flaring, and retractions. She's

diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome,

intubated, and placed on a ventilator. Which

nursing action should be included in the baby's

plan of care to prevent retinopathy of

prematurity?

a. Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen.

b. Keep her body temperature low.

c. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen

(Pao2) levels.

d. Humidify the oxygen.

85. Which of the following is normal newborn

calorie intake?

a. 110 to 130 calories per kg.

b. 30 to 40 calories per lb of body weight.

c. At least 2 ml per feeding

d. 90 to 100 calories per kg

86. Nurse John is knowledgeable that usually

individual twins will grow appropriately and at

the same rate as singletons until how many

weeks?

a. 16 to 18 weeks

b. 18 to 22 weeks

c. 30 to 32 weeks

d. 38 to 40 weeks

87. Which of the following classifications applies to

monozygotic twins for whom the cleavage of the

fertilized ovum occurs more than 13 days after

fertilization?

a. conjoined twins

b. diamniotic dichorionic twins

c. diamniotic monochorionic twin

d. monoamniotic monochorionic twins

88. Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding has

just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa.

Which of the following procedures is usually

performed to diagnose placenta previa?

a. Amniocentesis

b. Digital or speculum examination

c. External fetal monitoring

d. Ultrasound

89. Nurse Arnold knows that the following changes

in respiratory functioning during pregnancy is

considered normal:

a. Increased tidal volume

b. Increased expiratory volume

c. Decreased inspiratory capacity

d. Decreased oxygen consumption

90. Emily has gestational diabetes and it is usually

managed by which of the following therapy?

a. Diet

b. Long-acting insulin

c. Oral hypoglycemic

d. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin

91. Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma with

preeclampsia to prevent which of the following

condition?

a. Hemorrhage

b. Hypertension

c. Hypomagnesemia

d. Seizure

92. Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased

risk for having a sickle cell crisis during

pregnancy. Aggressive management of a sickle

cell crisis includes which of the following

measures?

a. Antihypertensive agents

b. Diuretic agents

c. I.V. fluids

d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain

93. Which of the following drugs is the antidote for

magnesium toxicity?

a. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)

b. Hydralazine (Apresoline)

c. Naloxone (Narcan)

d. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

94. Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her

first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of

purified protein derivative (PPD) of the

tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to

have a positive test for which of the following

results?

a. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in

diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.

b. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in

diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.

c. A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in

diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.

d. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in

diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.

95. Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks’ pregnant

arrives at her physician’s office with complaints

of fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, unilateral

flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness.

Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

a. Asymptomatic bacteriuria

b. Bacterial vaginosis

c. Pyelonephritis

d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)

96. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client

develops during which of the following

conditions?

a. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into

fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.

b. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into

maternal blood, stimulating maternal

antibodies.

c. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into

maternal blood, stimulating maternal

antibodies.

d. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into

fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.

97. To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John

advises a client to assume certain positions and

avoid others. Which position may cause

maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?

a. Lateral position

b. Squatting position

c. Supine position

d. Standing position

98. Celeste who used heroin during her pregnancy

delivers a neonate. When assessing the neonate,

the nurse Lhynnette expects to find:

a. Lethargy 2 days after birth.

b. Irritability and poor sucking.

c. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin

lips.

d. Congenital defects such as limb

anomalies.

99. The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which

of the following time frames?

a. 7th to 9th day postpartum.

b. 2 weeks postpartum.

c. End of 6th week postpartum.

d. When the lochia changes to alba.

100. Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20, has

just completed a difficult, forceps-assisted

delivery of twins. Her labor was unusually

long and required oxytocin (Pitocin)

augmentation. The nurse who's caring for her

should stay alert for:

a. Uterine inversion

b. Uterine atony

c. Uterine involution

d. Uterine discomfort