TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child part 1

TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of the

Mother and Child part 1

1. May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the

nurse that her last menstrual period was 9

weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that a home

pregnancy test was positive but she began to

have mild cramps and is now having moderate

vaginal bleeding. During the physical

examination of the client, the nurse notes that

May has a dilated cervix. The nurse determines

that May is experiencing which type of abortion?

a. Inevitable

b. Incomplete

c. Threatened

d. Septic

2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a

pregnant client for her first prenatal visit. Which

of the following data, if noted on the client’s

record, would alert the nurse that the client is at

risk for a spontaneous abortion?

a. Age 36 years

b. History of syphilis

c. History of genital herpes

d. History of diabetes mellitus

3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client who

is newly admitted to the hospital with a possible

diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nurse Hazel

develops a plan of care for the client and

determines that which of the following nursing

actions is the priority?

a. Monitoring weight

b. Assessing for edema

c. Monitoring apical pulse

d. Monitoring temperature

4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic pregnant

client about nutrition and insulin needs during

pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client

understands dietary and insulin needs if the

client states that the second half of pregnancy

requires:

a. Decreased caloric intake

b. Increased caloric intake

c. Decreased Insulin

d. Increase Insulin

5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client

with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. She is

aware that one of the following is unassociated

with this condition?

a. Excessive fetal activity.

b. Larger than normal uterus for

gestational age.

c. Vaginal bleeding

d. Elevated levels of human chorionic

gonadotropin.

6. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate

for severe pregnancy induced hypertension

(PIH). The clinical findings that would warrant

use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:

a. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.

b. Absent patellar reflexes.

c. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.

d. Rapid rise in blood pressure.

7. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in

labor, the presenting part is at station plus two.

Nurse, correctly interprets it as:

a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane

of the ischial spines.

b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.

c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane

of the ischial spines.

d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the

ischial spines.

8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin)

for induction of labor. A condition that warrant

the nurse in-charge to discontinue I.V. infusion

of Pitocin is:

a. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting

70-80 seconds.

b. Maternal temperature 101.2

c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart

rate.

d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.

9. Calcium gluconate is being administered to a

client with pregnancy induced hypertension

(PIH). A nursing action that must be initiated as

the plan of care throughout injection of the drug

is:

a. Ventilator assistance

b. CVP readings

c. EKG tracings

d. Continuous CPR

10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier

caesarean, would likely to be given to a gravida,

who had:

a. First low transverse cesarean was for

active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal

culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was

positive.

b. First and second caesareans were for

cephalopelvic disproportion.

c. First caesarean through a classic incision

as a result of severe fetal distress.

d. First low transverse caesarean was for

breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy

is in a vertex presentation.

11. Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial

approach when trying to take a crying toddler’s

temperature is:

a. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.

b. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.

c. Encourage the mother to hold the child.

d. Ignore the crying and screaming.

12. Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip

and palate repair. What should the nurse do to

prevent trauma to operative site?

a. Avoid touching the suture line, even when cleaning.

b. Place the baby in prone position.

c. Give the baby a pacifier.

d. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.

13. Which action should nurse Marian include in the

care plan for a 2 month old with heart failure?

a. Feed the infant when he cries.

b. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.

c. Bathe the infant and administer

medications before feeding.

d. Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding.

14. Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who plans to

discontinue breast feeding after 5 months. The

nurse should advise her to include which foods

in her infant’s diet?

a. Skim milk and baby food.

b. Whole milk and baby food.

c. Iron-rich formula only.

d. Iron-rich formula and baby food.

15. Mommy Linda is playing with her infant, who is

sitting securely alone on the floor of the clinic.

The mother hides a toy behind her back and the

infant looks for it. The nurse is aware that

estimated age of the infant would be:

a. 6 months

b. 4 months

c. 8 months

d. 10 months

16. Which of the following is the most prominent

feature of public health nursing?

a. It involves providing home care to sick

people who are not confined in the hospital.

b. Services are provided free of charge to

people within the catchments area.

c. The public health nurse functions as part

of a team providing a public health

nursing services.

d. Public health nursing focuses on

preventive, not curative, services.

17. When the nurse determines whether resources

were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas,

she is evaluating

a. Effectiveness

b. Efficiency

c. Adequacy

d. Appropriateness

18. Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She wants to

become a Public Health Nurse. Where should

she apply?

a. Department of Health

b. Provincial Health Office

c. Regional Health Office

d. Rural Health Unit

19. Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal

Health Board is:

a. Mayor

b. Municipal Health Officer

c. Public Health Nurse

d. Any qualified physician

20. Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality

with a total population of about 20,000. There

are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU

personnel. How many more midwife items will

the RHU need?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. The RHU does not need any more midwife item.

21. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community

health nursing is a developmental service. Which

of the following best illustrates this statement?

a. The community health nurse

continuously develops himself

personally and professionally.

b. Health education and community

organizing are necessary in providing

community health services.

c. Community health nursing is intended

primarily for health promotion and

prevention and treatment of disease.

d. The goal of community health nursing is

to provide nursing services to people in

their own places of residence.

22. Nurse Tina is aware that the disease declared

through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a

target for eradication in the Philippines is?

a. Poliomyelitis

b. Measles

c. Rabies

d. Neonatal tetanus

23. May knows that the step in community

organizing that involves training of potential

leaders in the community is:

a. Integration

b. Community organization

c. Community study

d. Core group formation

24. Beth a public health nurse takes an active role in

community participation. What is the primary

goal of community organizing?

a. To educate the people regarding

community health problems

b. To mobilize the people to resolve

community health problems

c. To maximize the community’s resources

in dealing with health problems.

d. To maximize the community’s resources

in dealing with health problems.

25. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of

the natural history of disease?

a. Pre-pathogenesis

b. Pathogenesis

c. Prodromal

d. Terminal

26. The nurse is caring for a primigravid client in the

labor and delivery area. Which condition would

place the client at risk for disseminated

intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

a. Intrauterine fetal death.

b. Placenta accreta.

c. Dysfunctional labor.

d. Premature rupture of the membranes.        

27. A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware

that the fetal heart rate would be:

a. 80 to 100 beats/minute

b. 100 to 120 beats/minute

c. 120 to 160 beats/minute

d. 160 to 180 beats/minute

28. The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month old

infant is excoriated and red. Nurse Hazel should

instruct the mother to:

a. Change the diaper more often.

b. Apply talc powder with diaper changes.

c. Wash the area vigorously with each

diaper change.

d. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to

decrease saturating diapers.            

29. Nurse Carla knows that the common cardiac

anomalies in children with Down Syndrome (trisomy

21) is:

a. Atrial septal defect

b. Pulmonic stenosis

c. Ventricular septal defect

d. Endocardial cushion defect

30. Malou was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia

is now receiving I.V. magnesium sulfate. The

adverse effects associated with magnesium

sulfate is:

a. Anemia

b. Decreased urine output

c. Hyperreflexia

d. Increased respiratory rate

31. A 23 year old client is having her menstrual

period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This

type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:

a. Menorrhagia

b. Metrorrhagia

c. Dyspareunia

d. Amenorrhea

32. Jannah is admitted to the labor and delivery

unit. The critical laboratory result for this client

would be:

a. Oxygen saturation

b. Iron binding capacity

c. Blood typing

d. Serum Calcium

33. Nurse Gina is aware that the most common

condition found during the second-trimester of

pregnancy is:

a. Metabolic alkalosis

b. Respiratory acidosis

c. Mastitis

d. Physiologic anemia

34. Nurse Lynette is working in the triage area of an

emergency department. She sees that several

pediatric clients arrive simultaneously. The client

who needs to be treated first is:

a. A crying 5 year old child with a

laceration on his scalp.

b. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs

and flushed appearance.

c. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome

who is pale and asleep in his mother’s

arms.

d. A 2 year old infant with stridorous

breath sounds, sitting up in his mother’s

arms and drooling.

35. Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the

emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding.

Which of the following conditions is suspected?

a. Placenta previa

b. Abruptio placentae

c. Premature labor

d. Sexually transmitted disease

36. A young child named Richard is suspected of

having pinworms. The community nurse collects

a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The

nurse should schedule the collection of this

specimen for:

a. Just before bedtime

b. After the child has been bathe

c. Any time during the day

d. Early in the morning                     

37. In doing a child’s admission assessment, Nurse

Betty should be alert to note which signs or

symptoms of chronic lead poisoning?

a. Irritability and seizures

b. Dehydration and diarrhea

c. Bradycardia and hypotension

d. Petechiae and hematuria

38. To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the

use of diaphragm for family planning, Nurse

Trish asks her to explain how she will use the

appliance. Which response indicates a need for

further health teaching?

a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully

for holes every time I use it”

b. “I may need a different size of

diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more

than 20 pounds”

c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for

atleast 6 hours after intercourse”

d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and

jelly most during the middle of my

menstrual cycle”.

39. Hypoxia is a common complication of

laryngotracheobronchitis. Nurse Oliver should

frequently assess a child with

laryngotracheobronchitis for:

a. Drooling

b. Muffled voice

c. Restlessness

d. Low-grade fever

40. How should Nurse Michelle guide a child who is

blind to walk to the playroom?

a. Without touching the child, talk

continuously as the child walks down the hall.

b. Walk one step ahead, with the child’s

hand on the nurse’s elbow.

c. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the child forward.

d. Walk next to the child, holding the child’s hand.

41. When assessing a newborn diagnosed with

ductus arteriosus, Nurse Olivia should expect

that the child most likely would have an:

a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.

b. Bluish color to the lips.

c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities

d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.

42. The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a

neutral thermal environment is that when a

newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:

a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s

metabolic rate increases.

b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s

metabolic rate decreases.

c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s

metabolic rate increases.

d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s

metabolic rate decreases.

43. Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line,

Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this

infant has:

a. Stable blood pressure

b. Patant fontanelles

c. Moro’s reflex

d. Voided

44. Nurse Carla should know that the most common

causative factor of dermatitis in infants and

younger children is:

a. Baby oil

b. Baby lotion

c. Laundry detergent

d. Powder with cornstarch

45. During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s

stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with

formula?

a. 6 inches

b. 12 inches

c. 18 inches

d. 24 inches

46. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed

childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which

of the following statements about chicken pox is

correct?

a. The older one gets, the more susceptible

he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.

b. A single attack of chicken pox will

prevent future episodes, including

conditions such as shingles.

c. To prevent an outbreak in the

community, quarantine may be imposed

by health authorities.

d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when

there is an impending outbreak in the

community.

47. Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of German

measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is

the BEST advice that you can give to women in

the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay

Pinoy?

a. Advise them on the signs of German

measles.

b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets

and movie houses.

c. Consult at the health center where

rubella vaccine may be given.

d. Consult a physician who may give them

rubella immunoglobulin.

48. Myrna a public health nurse knows that to

determine possible sources of sexually

transmitted infections, the BEST method that

may be undertaken is:

a. Contact tracing

b. Community survey

c. Mass screening tests

d. Interview of suspects               

49. A 33-year old female client came for

consultation at the health center with the chief

complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying

symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise.

A week after the start of fever, the client noted

yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History

showed that he waded in flood waters about 2

weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on

her history, which disease condition will you

suspect?

a. Hepatitis A

b. Hepatitis B

c. Tetanus

d. Leptospirosis

50. Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the

health center with the chief complaint of severe

diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools.

The client is most probably suffering from which

condition?

a. Giardiasis

b. Cholera

c. Amebiasis

d. Dysentery